Quote Originally Posted by Babydum
As guns are more readily available in the USA, it is no surprise that gun related murders are greater there than they would be in a country where it's not so easy to obtain guns. But the question of whether Americans are more homicidally inclined or not will depend on a comparison of all murder statistics - as opposed to just gun related murders.
I think that was exactly the point I made earlier. The vast differential in firearms deaths could only be attributed to one of two things in my opinion, citizens of the US are more homicidally inclined, or the incidence of guns disproportionately increases the chances that they will be used. My beliefe is the latter, and I have yet to hear an argument for a possible further cause, or an argument as to why they have 32,000+ against our significantly smaller number. All I have heard is statements picking holes in minor details, statemensts that I am wrong with nothing to back it up. Until I hear a reasoned argument, this thread is dead AFAIAC.

Quote Originally Posted by BabyDum
Also, even if it should hold true that murders in America are greater in number than the combined numbers of murders in Britain, France, Germany, Japan, Switzerland, Sweden, Denmark and Australia. This would not necessarily mean that the availability of guns was of itself the cause of the trend.
SO your alternative arguments is ...?[/quote]